-Does Romans 8:26 mean “praying in tongues”?

Romans 8:26-27

 

“Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities (weakness or lack of strength) for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. And He that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is in the mind of the Spirit according to the will of God.”

 

 

I find these two scriptures interesting. Some interpret this scripture to mean that the Holy Ghost is praying for or through us as we “pray in tongues” or “use our prayer language.” It is believed by many that when we “pray in tongues” the Holy Ghost is interceding for us. As I read this text over and over along with the entire chapter, I found out that verses 26 and 27 neither implies or indicated such a thing. This commonly known view has no scriptural basis at all. Does it mean that those who believe the described views are less saved or knowledgable in the Word? Not necessarily. Daily as we study Scripture we are supposed to be corrected and many of us will find, what we think we know is not so. This is one of them. Sometimes we can believe something so long, that we take no thought to question its truth.

This one passage used as a proof text actually has nothing to do with tongues: “The Spirit Himself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered” (Rom. 8:26). Unutterable or unuttered groanings obviously cannot refer to tongues since the Spirit’s intercession cannot be articulated (i.e., spoken or uttered).

       

“Likewise the Spirit also helps our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought [Gk: ‘as it BEHOOVES’—that which is necessary & binding]: but the Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings [What kind of groanings? Our groanings? The spirit groaning through US? NO…] …which CANNOT BE UTTERED” (Rom. 8:26. “…UNSPOKEN groans,” Emphatic Diaglott, “…INARTICULATE groanings,” Concordant Literal New Testament, etc.).

“Groanings – stenagmos (sten-ag-mos) a sigh

“Which cannot be uttered” – alaletos (al-al-ay-tos); unspeakable

“Utterance” – apophtheggomai (ap-of-theng’-om-ahee) – to enunciate plainly, i.e. declare; to say, speak forth (Enunciate means to “pronounce–words, sentences, etc.–especially in an articulate or a particular manner; to state or declare definitely; to announce or proclaim.”

This scripture cannot be used to justify our “prayer language” or speaking/praying in tongues to mean that the Spirit is praying through us. If the groanings “CANNOT BE UTTERED”–cannot be vocalized by the Spirit then it most certainly cannot be vocalized by human expression audibly in any language (ie. Tongues).

If this is so, how could any claim to do it?

These groanings, the groanings the scriptures are referring to is the intercession of the Holy Spirit, not a believer’s “prayer language”. It has nothing to do with us or a work on our part (ie. Speaking or praying)This verse clearly states that the SPIRIT “cannot” utter (or speak) these groanings (sighs). If the SPIRIT cannot utter it, then how in the world is the Spirit (not our spirit, but the HOLY SPIRIT) speaking through us by way of a tongue  (a language)?

If the SPIRIT CANNOT UTTER (speak) these groanings, then how are WE “all of a sudden” able to still utter (speak) them in praying to God?

The Word of God says that the SPIRIT CANNOT UTTER (speak) them. If the Word of God says that the SPIRIT CANNOT UTTER (speak) these groanings, then that means that WE absolutely CANNOT UTTER (speak) the groanings of the SPIRIT by way of tongues as we pray.

Therefore we should not assume:

That the Spirit is “speaking through us” in the form of a language. The Scriptures teaches no such thing, but the opposite in that it does not speak through us. These are groanings or sighs not WORDS and scripture clearly teaches that EVERY word of a language has significance and makes sense (1Cor 14:10). Also it is the Spirit who is praying not us, so we should not assume that the Spirit is using us to pray by way of tongues.

The Word of God has precedence over experience (which may not be biblical) or the teachings of men (tradition). We have no right to read what we want to read into Scripture. Instead of reading what we want to believe, we must instead believe what we read.

There are a lot of translations of the Bible (NIV, NKJV and etc.) and they all aim to simplify the scriptures, but most of them instead are making them complicated and misconstruing what the author really intended to say. Be careful which Bible versions you read.

 

Let’s examine this scripture (Rom. 8:26) in light of the entire chapter:

As I read through the chapter I noticed Paul’s flow of thought in verses 19-27.

 

 

First Paul brings out that the creation groans (vs.22)

 

Second Paul brings out that believers groan (vs.23)

 

Third Paul brings out “likewise” the Spirit groans the same way (vs. 26)

 

 

Basically what Paul was saying is that creation and believers are sighing or groaning over the fallen state of mankind and that all of creation is longing for the “manifestations of the sons of God” and for “the glorious liberty of the children of God (vs. 21,19).” We all are groaning under the weight of our fallen state (waiting for our bodies to be redeemed), but Paul is bringing out that we are not alone because “likewise” the Holy Ghost (Spirit) is groaning over the same thing. He can’t wait either!

Paul was using a verse 26 metaphorically based on what he said in the scriptures before verse 26 – the groanings of creation and of the believers.

Also scriptures does not say that the believer is the one doing the groanings, but it says the Spirit does, in intercession for us and that those groanings cannot be uttered.

 

 

Scripture clearly teaches that it is the SPIRIT doing the groanings or speaking if you will, not people. Not only that, but the Spirit is not really speaking because His graonings “cannot be uttered.” If His groanings “cannot be uttered” why do many of us believe that the manifestation of the intercessory prayer of the Spirit is being accomplished when we are speaking or “praying” in tongues? Now if we understand this to mean “praying in tongues” then in all reality the verse will contradict itself because speaking in a tongue(s) is utterance. Scripture clearly teaches that the Spirit is praying, not us, with groanings that cannot be uttered. Then in verse 27, it teaches that what cannot be uttered God understands because “he knoweth what is in the mind of the Spirit.” How? “Because he maketh intercession for the saints” according to His very own will (vs. 27).

 

 

In conclusion, nothing in verse 26 or in the chapter is related to the issue of speaking or “praying” in tongues. Paul is not indicating that the Spirit is “speaking through us”, helping us pray, or is interceding for us by taking over our prayer with an utterance (tongues). Scripture clearly states that what the Spirit is doing, cannot be uttered. 
Saints, Paul is talking about the Spirit’s ministry to the believer. The ministry of the Holy Ghost is a constant ongoing work in us in that He is always interceding for us. Verse 27 says, “. And He that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is in the mind of the Spirit according to the will of God.”  In other words God can understand the “inexpressible groanings” because the Spirit is in us and the Spirit (not us through tongues) then expresses them to God for His understanding. Remember these are groanings or sighs not WORDS or a language and these sighs are inexpressible.

Have comfort in this saints: when we don’t know what to pray, the Spirit of God sees our heart and knows our needs.  The Spirit then intercedes for us before the Throne of God in a way that we would not even be able to understand if we heard it.  There is no speaking or praying in tongues, because the Spirit is doing the speaking before God directly Himself, not through us.

 

In order to rightly divide the Word of truth we have to learn how to apply Literal Principle and it goes like this…

 

First, does this passage say anything about speaking in tongues?  No.  In fact, Paul (who is the author of Romans) has PLENTY to say about the use of speaking in tongues.  If he were talking about speaking in tongues here, then he would have said so. 

 

Secondly, the passage says the “Spirit Himself” intercedes, which implies that our involvement is not needed.  Using the Literal Principle we can conclude that Romans 8:26 does not mean that the Spirit is using us to bring out His intercession for us by “praying in tongues”.

I really hope this helps clear up some confusion about our “Prayer language”. This post is not to devalue the prayer language, but to put the scripture used to justify it in its proper perspective. When we speak in tongues privately, scripture teaches that we are speaking to God (1 Cor. 14:2), and what we are speaking is mysteries. Sometimes, or the majority of the time we don’t even understand it. Just to give you an example, in my prayer time I have sung in tongues (not often, I can count the times on my fingers). After some time in my devotion, those tongues turn into English and I understand what was sung, then I write it down. These are beautiful songs, possibly never sung in the earth (as far as I know…I never heard it). So, there is a time that we spend with God, where we pray and have intimate fellowship with Him. If that intimate fellowship consists of a time of speaking in unknown tongues to God, and someone wants to call it their “prayer language”, so be it. There is nothing wrong with that. The error comes when we take a scripture out of context to justify it or explain it. A scripture does explain it. That scripture is 1 Corinthians 14:2, not Romans 8:26. 

 

 

 

Be Blessed

 

 

PDCM

27 comments on “-Does Romans 8:26 mean “praying in tongues”?

  1. Sure must be hard to read your bible with scriptures like this in it… or can you explain this away too??

    Acts 10
    44While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. 45The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles. 46For they heard them speaking in tongues[b] and praising God.

    and again

    Acts 19
    6When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues[a] and prophesied.

  2. Hello, Thanks for visiting. Just to answer your question no it is not hard reading scriptures like that. It seems that you are implying that this blog post is against speaking in tongues…it is NOT. If this was indeed your conclusion I invite you to read it again. This post is addressing Rom 8:26 in regards to a “prayer language” in that the “Holy Spirit” is using tongues to pray through us or for us. This scripture is often misinterpreted and this post is simply shedding some light on that misinterpretation. Sorry for your confusion.

  3. It is great to point that out…but, in wanting the whole counsel of the word of God, why not also point out that I Cor. 14:2-4 definitely mentions tongues as speaking mysteries unto God for the believer’s edification. So you can split hairs but the truth remains… God has given a gift to his people for those who receive it. A way to prayer when you don’t know what to pray…and I am grateful. May God open your heart and mouth to receive what He freely gives. He loves you.

  4. Hi Mary,

    Thanks for stopping by. With all love, you and many others read my blogs and jump to conclusions. In reading your comment and similar comments I assume that one -you have not read the entire post, two – you are reading into the post something that is not there or 3- maybe you simply did not understand the post.

    This post is not refuting that there is no “prayer language”, that there is no such thing as speaking in tongues or a tongue, that I don’t speak in a tongue or unto God (because I do the biblical way…not chanting one word or the same couple of words over and over), nor is it disputing 1 Cor. 14:2-4. Maybe the ” ” threw you off or offended you. If so I am sorry. By using ” ” it is not to falsify the phrase. I use ” ” because it came from somewhere, not the bible, it is just a phrase. Anyway, I invite you to read it again.

    What this post is about is the claim that IT IS THE HOLY GHOST SPEAKING THROUGH A PERSON PRAYING FOR THAT PERSON AND THAT IT IS THE HOLY GHOST INTERCEDING FOR US. It is refuting the claim THAT THE HOLY SPIRIT HIMSELF IS SPEAKING THROUGH US USING TONGUES TO PRAY FOR US HIMSELF. You may have not been taught that, but many of us were. Sorry for the all caps it is not intended for disrespect, just so that you get the point. I am specifically talking about Romans 8:26 &27 being used to justify this claim. The claim (again) that every time we speak in a tongue unto God it is the Spirit using our voice in the form of a language so that HE can pray for us. Nothing more and nothing less. Again you may not have been taught that. Now taking into consideration the whole counsel of God…there is NOTHING in Scripture that justifies this claim that Jesus prays for us using tongues. 1Cor. 14:2-4 (since you put this scripture out there) makes it clear that it is US speaking to God using the gift he gave us which He understands fully…. NOT God speaking THROUGH us as explained above. So I am NOT “splitting hairs”. Just to make all of this clear, I will post part of this in the post so that no one else get’s it twisted, jumps to conclusions, assumes or anything else.

    Peace and blessings

  5. Hi Mike. Speaking in tongues is a issue that will continue to be misunderstood by many and debated over until Christ comes. It is opinions that has gotten many believers confused regarding this topic so with all due respect I would rather not give my opinion. Regarding this issue I do all that I can to stay within Biblical guide lines. I will tell you this though, If the Spirit does not give me utterance I do not speak. Since I have studied about this issue I have refrained from speaking in tongues “at will” and partaking in a lot of unbiblical church practices based on tradition and lack of understanding. All I can say is study the Word and let God give you understanding. As I said in an earlier response (just so not to confuse) This post is not refuting speaking in tongues, but to give understanding about a particular scripture in context.

  6. I agree with your interpretation of Romans 8 vs 26, i dont personally claim to have any specific gifts other than faith and an open mind to learn from the
    bible. Thanks for taking the time to share, Mark.

  7. Dear brother,

    Thank you for stating with much clariity using only the Scriptures and not your opinions. Your article has blessed me immensely. It is sad to see the divisions caused by the various interpretation of the Scriptures and personal opnions and feelings on this ONE spiritual gift. Yet most Christians fail to speak more about the fruit of the Spirit. The Lord has instructed us with much clarity that when we would receive POWER when the Holy Spirit comes on us and we would be His witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria and to the ends of the earth (Acts 1:8). We who have become children of the living God by receiving Him and believing in His name (John 1:12), must be focused on reaching out and not build walls amongst us over the issue of tongues. I wish the denominational barriers will be broken, if only all our focus can be on Acts 1:8 and not on issues that help us “superior” Christians.
    Thank you brother once again for the clarity in which you have responded to this subject.

    Blessings in His matchless name

  8. (regarding you comment on speaking tongues at will)
    I’m unsure about not being able to speak in tongues at will. In the Corinthian church they were all speaking in tongues. Paul did not say they were false tongues, but that they should only speak 2 or at most 3 and then there must be an interpretation. Why would the Holy Spirit lead all in that church to speak in tongues? He would not. Unlike Pentecost where they all spoke in different “earthly” languages. So, if Paul does not rebuke them for using false tongues, I would say they are authentic but are being used incorrectly. Therefore to speak in tongues of self edification at will seems to be possible. Paul himself states he speaks in tongues more than you all, but in church would rather say 5 intelligible words than 10000 words in a tongue. (so he must be speaking outside of a church setting when he is speaking all these tongues)
    What are your thoughts?
    thanks

    I do agree with you teaching of Romans 8″26-27

  9. I just wanted to thank God for you, and letting him use you to give me a clear understanding of that verse, because I was one of those ones who misinterpretated that scripture, and I thank God for true clarity. I can receive that, because it was God breathe. Give an example: yesterday I didn’t feel like going to bible study, but the Holy Spirit knows the will of God according to Hebrews 10:25, so without me having to speak or pray, the Holy Spirit automatically inwardly intercedes on my behalf unknowingly, orme verbally praying, because He knows the will of God for my life is to not forsake the fellowship. Even though I didn’t feel like going I still went. But before I go I have 1 question. I use to pray for people, and God will Heal them. I would first start in my human language mostly I would just be glorifying God in advance for the healing before I beginned to pray, and as I begin to pray about the healing, moments later I would be speaking in tongues, and the person who I prayed for they would be healed. Can you help me to understand if this? If this is a possible way how God will operate? Sorry so long winded.

  10. Dear friend,
    I’ve been brought up in Pentecostal Charasmatic churches through my child hood years & into my late teens. I want to thankyou whole heartedly & request permission to use your blog ‘Does Romans 8:26 mean “praying in tongues, I am a tongue speaker consertive who finds it refreshing for someone to clearly clarify what this particular scripture in actually indicating & have known it for many years, & have no part of the padanic false tongue speaking teachings out there, so I am kind of a charismatic outsider, a non crowd follower. I’d really appreciate you contacting me, with the permission & perhaps supplying me some links, to other places on the internet that support such a view.

  11. Romans 8:26

    • Rom 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helps in our weaknesses. For we do not know what we should pray for as we ought, but the Spirit Himself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

    Pentecostals love to quote Rom 8:26 to justify speaking in tongues during praying and does not require an interpreter.

    Fist of all, it says “groanings which CANNOT BE UTTERED (or spoken).” It means we cannot speak these words because we cannot understand it.

    If we speak in unknown tongues using Romans 8:26, then it is wrong because it says these words cannot be uttered or spoken.

    If these words cannot be uttered or spoken, then these words, in any form will not come out from any ones mouth.

    Pentecostals teach exactly the OPPOSITE of Romans 8:26.

    They say when you speak in tongues (unknown language), the Holy Spirit in you prays and intercedes with God that you cannot understand.

    Read again, it says, CANNOT BE SPOKEN – you cannot speak it, once you can’t understand it, you cannot speak it.

    Once you speak anything you cannot understand it is MEANINGLESS because no one understands it!

    We should not use our own interpretation here.

    • Rom 8:27 Now He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He makes intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

    Notice, the Spirit in Romans 8:26 is a helper and intercessor.

    Who is the Spirit?

    • 2 Cor 3:17 Now the Lord is the Spirit; and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.

    Who is the intercessor or mediator to God the Father?

    • 1 Tim 2:5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,

    • 1 John 2:1 My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.

    • Rom 8:34 Who is he who condemns? It is Christ who died, and furthermore is also risen, who is even at the right hand of God, who also makes intercession for us.

    • Heb 7:25 Therefore He is also able to save to the uttermost those who come to God through Him, since He always lives to make intercession for them.

    Jesus Christ is the Lord, the helper, the Spirit, the mediator or intercessor in Romans 8:26!

    • Heb 7:25 Therefore He is also able to save to the uttermost those who come to God through Him, since He always lives to make intercession for them.

    • Heb 7:26 For such a High Priest was fitting for us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and has become higher than the heavens;

    • Heb 7:27 who does not need daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the people’s, for this He did once for all when He offered up Himself.

    • Heb 7:28 For the law appoints as high priests men who have weakness, but the word of the oath, which came after the law, appoints the Son who has been perfected forever.

    Jesus Christ is our High Priest who makes intercession for us!

    How does He intercede?

    • 1 Cor 2:9 But as it is written: “Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, Nor have entered into the heart of man The things which God has prepared for those who love Him.”

    • 2 Cor 12:4 how he was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.

    Rom 8:16 The Spirit Himself bears witness with our spirit that we are children of God,

    • Rom 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helps in our weaknesses. For we do not know what we should pray for as we ought, but the Spirit Himself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

    Notice:

    1. God’s Kingdom is something we have never fully understood because we have not yet experienced it.
    2. Paul, in a vision, heard “heavenly” words that he can’t speak because he can’t understand.
    3. Christ uses these “heavenly” words that we as Christians cannot speak or understand. They have their own language that we cannot express right now.

    Romans 8:26 does not teach that the Holy Spirit is us prays or intercedes directly to God “out of control.”

    • Rom 8:16 The Spirit Himself bears witness with our spirit that we are children of God,

    There is harmony between the Spirit of God and our human spirit. The Holy Spirit does not act on its own. The Spirit of God leads us to repentance and salvation.

    Jesus Christ is the Spirit in Romans 8:26 that intercede for us using words we cannot speak because we cannot understand them.

    http://godthefatherandjesuschrist.blogspot.com/2010/12/what-is-speaking-in-tongues.html

  12. Hi-I have done my own research…
    I looked up all the words tongues in the NT. In the Greek-and it always means a tongue of a known language. In Acts the word-tongues-Greek-(Glossaa)-language (.Lilia) speaking put the two together-you have speaking in a known language-All through out Acts- if you look up tongues-It implies a known language-
    When tongues is used, it is to speaking to a different tribe-different language, but always used to speak to people who do not understand in their “own” language, from the speaker. Acts 2:6 sets up the stage, or the foundation –for the entire book of Acts-2:6- N.L.T-When they heard the loud noise, everyone came running, and they were bewildered to hear their own languages being spoken by the believers. GBU-Gailann

  13. Firstly I would like to thank Praisedance for your blog, I find the comments very interesting. It seems like the modern Pentecostal/ Charismatic church is totally sold out on speaking in tonges to a point where the other gifts Prohecy, Teaching, Healing, Disernment are neglected.
    Where as tonges have thier place Paul admonishes us to seek to excel in those gifts that build up (edify) the body of Christ. 1 Cor 14v 12-14.

  14. This is my confirmation ! I had come to this same conclusion after studying this specific passage in spring of 2011. Thank you for rightly dividing the word of God. I look forward to reading more on this site. God bless you abundantly.

  15. I’m a pentecostal minister myself and I see nothing wrong with the explanation given for these scriptures. Just because speaking in tongues is biblical does not mean that you have to use scriptures to justify it that do not apply, there are plenty of scriptures that do apply to it. I think that this was a very good explanation of a complicated scripture.

  16. In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to “speak in tongues,” verified that God’s favor had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation. (Heb. 2:2-4) Since that objective was accomplished in the first century, is it necessary to prove the same thing again and again in our day?
    In the first century, the ability to “speak in tongues” gave impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do. (Acts 1:8; 2:1-11; Matt. 28:19) Is that how those who “speak in tongues” use that ability today?
    In the first century, when Christians ‘spoke in tongues,’ what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages. (Acts 2:4, 8) Today, is it not true that ‘speaking in tongues’ usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds?
    In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the ‘speaking in tongues’ to two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it “each in turn,” and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent. (1 Cor. 14:27, 28, RS) Is that what is being done today?

  17. I’m not drawing any conclusions about what you said or meant to say. Just wanted to pose a thought or two. I’m agreeing or disagreeing with you on this one, because as a tongue talker myself I’ve often wondered about this verse too and what it means in prayer. Could it mean:

    A: Something deeper than tongues, where no words of any kind, even tongues, can even be formed in response?

    and/or

    B: It does refer to tongues, as other verses point that “Praying in the Spirit” does mean tongues. But maybe saying that it cannot be “articulated” actually means that there are occasions that we don’t know how to pray in our limited known language and that it takes a language beyond the mind to do this kind of prayer. Paul did say in 1 Cor 14 that speaking in tongues was basically un-intelligible without interpretation, which is why it’s often best used in prayer and not in a church service unless there is an interpreter. So maybe it’s how we define Articulate or Utter. If we understand this to mean that no it cannot be uttered or articulated in any known language, than to the one who sits by listening it would be random noise, inarticulate, unrepeatable… etc. I’ve heard one prayer warrior say: “Sometimes English won’t cut it and you have to hit it in tongues”.

    Thank you for your study, it was thought provoking and I’ll continue to study these words and contexts more. DW

  18. I do not wish a response, I wish to deliver on behalf of God and Father. There are things you are taking upon your own hands which are strictly forbidden. You are teaching. I’m not meaning for this to be a sexist remark, however I am edifying you sister. As you know, the Lord is beginning to fullfil Acts 2:14 with the rest of the last day testimonies. I find it hard that you beleive strongly, yet you aren’t being convicted by the Holy Spirit for teaching. Women are not to teach as the Lord clearly speaks in 1 Timothy 2:8-15, the Lord God almighty clearly states in verse 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man. The Lord is coming, take heed. Do not be offended, but rather be joyous that the Lord has delivered this message through his mercy and love for you. Do not contest against others, or profess the doctrine. It is clearly forbidden. May the glorious Lord Christ Jesus fill you with the wisdom of acceptance through this message in order for you to better serve him.

    • I know you do not wish a response, but I am going to give you one anyway. Please understand that I am not offended, just humored. It just amazes me how you know nothing about me, yet you type in your own judgment and then use the scriptures to try to validate your false assumption. If you would kindly go to the “About” section on this blog – and it is just a blog sharing what God has put on my heart for those who are in dance ministry and the body of Christ on “issues concerning WOMEN, CHILDREN, and issues concerning the church of which we (women) are vitally apart of – then you would see that this blog is intended for women. If men want to receive anything from this blog then that is their prerogative. I have no control over that. For you to say that I am usurping authority over a man is your own assumption due to your own ignorance concerning the purpose of this blog and my intended audience. You are in error and you wasted your time giving your opinion because you know nothing about me or my purpose; neither did you take the time to do so. Instead you became judgmental and you were slow to hear and quick to speak. For your own deliverance and for you to be beneficial to the body of Christ, before you give your opinion about anything, especially when commenting on someone’s blog, learn a little about them first. Also since you feel so strongly about women teaching anyone…why are you on my blog in the first place? God bless you and my He fill you with His wisdom and His righteous judgments in order for you to be more beneficial to His body serving Him in love.

      PDCM

  19. Thank you for your honest appraisal on this passage of scripture. Sadly I have had a to point out to our Pastor, after a men’s breakfast that this passage could not possibly be speaking in tongues as he insisted upon during the topic we were discussing that morning (Topic was on the subject of inhibitors to our prayer life) the Greek word leaves absolutely no other than what the NIV translation (which we use) “In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans.”
    Also I was rather stunned at some of the comments made, attacking your very correct view of this scripture, however I appreciate your very gracious replies. In Christ, Bill

  20. I’m still trying to figure out if “uttered” can ONLY mean spoken, or if there is any room in the translation to imply that it could also mean “articulated” or “spoken with understanding”?

    I am also curious as to how many people separate the “evidence of tongues” (private prayer language to edify ones self) from “The gift of Diverse Tongues and Interpretation” (used in a church setting out loud and openly to a group)

    The gift of DT&I has certain rules attached. 1. it’s interpreted (I’m assuming by the accompanying “gift of interpretation” so it seems like you would need the baptism of the Holy Spirit to actually operate in “the gift” of interpretation) 2. it’s edifies the church “BODY”. 3. Take turns… 4. Some people have it and some people do not.

    Praying in an “unknown” tongue seems to get pulled into the same category for some reason and I think it has totally different rules & purpose. 1.) 1Cor 14:4 “he that speaketh in an unknown tongue EDIFIETH HIMSELF” 2.) vs13 “My spirit prayeth” , 3.) vs17 “thou verily GIVETH THANKS WELL but the other is not edified”. 4.) Don’t direct your private prayer language at others, it’s between you and God.

    Questions:
    1. why do some attribute tongues in Acts to “The gift of Diverse Tongues & Interpretation” when 100% of the people did it (it says they ALL spoke in tongues)
    2. How could it be The Gift of DT&I when it was interpreted naturally (acts2:8) , & wouldn’t you need the Holy Ghost to operate in “the spiritual gift of interpretation?”
    3. Why do some seem so certain that “The Gift of DT&I” example is demonstrated at all? I can’t find a single instance where The actual gift of diverse tongues was interpreted through the power of the Holy Spirit.
    4. Could it be that 100% of the people in Acts 2:4,& Acts 10:44-45, were simply praying in the spirit and people heard them?
    5. Otherwise, why would All 100% of them receive the initial evidence of tongues upon receiving the Holy Ghost as opposed to only SOME receiving the gift of DT&I, & some the gift of healing, some miracles etc…
    6. When Paul says “Do all speak in tongues? Do all interpret”, Isn’t he still just referring to the Gift of DT&I for the edification of the church “Body” in ch12? How can people try to pull the private prayer tongue into that statement in order to try and dismiss it when Ch12:7 states that chapter is talking about spiritual gifts given to profit withal (the church body).
    7. Doesn’t praying in the spirit (unknown tongue) for our own edification contrast greatly from the rules for DT&I and still Paul says “they give thanks well”?
    8. Lastly, why do people quote 1 Cor 13:8 “tongues will cease” as if it already has ceased? Doesn’t that actually mean that knowledge, prophesy, & tongues will only cease when “That which is perfect has come”? I read the whole passage to say that after we are in heaven with Jesus, He’s going to teach us everything. There will be no more learning because we will know it all. No more prophesy because we’ll know the future already, and no need for DT&I because we’ll already know the interpretation, No unknown tongues either for obvious reasons. But we aren’t in heaven yet and knowledge has not ceased yet either, so surely tongues hasn’t ceased, right?

    I realize that you can’t actually tell me what “everyone else” is thinking, but hopefully address each point and/or my perception of them to see if my interpretations are valid please?

    • You’ve made some really good observations. I have also heard 1 Corinthians 13:8 used to say that tongues HAVE ceased (not that they SHALL cease as the text says). The 13th chapter says tongues “shall cease,” but does not indicate a shelf life for tongues except to say “when that which is perfect is come…” (v 10). “That which is perfect” is clarified in 1 Corinthians 4:5, “Therefore judge nothing before the time, until the Lord come, who both will bring to light the hidden things of darkness, and will make manifest the counsels of the hearts:and then shall every man have praise of God.” The clincher verse is 1 Corinthians 1:7-8, “So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Both verses I quoted are in 1 Corinthians; therefore, they are the contextual setting for 1 Corinthians 13:8-19. Verse 4:5 tells us the time of perfect completion when tongues and other revelational gifts will no longer be needed. Verse 1:7 gives the shelf life for the gifts of the spirit.

  21. Acts 2:4 says, “And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, AS THE SPIRIT GAVE THEM UTTERANCE.” (“Utterance” here also being “ἀποφθέγγομαι: to enunciate plainly, i.e. declare” as was stated in the article).

    I agree that speaking in tongues is not done at will; because, obviously the Spirit gives the utterance, not the speaker. When Romans 8:26 says, “Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered” it does not mean The Spirit cannot utter the groanings. There is nothing an omnipotent God in the Person of the Holy Spirit “cannot…[utter].” It is the praying Christian that cannot utter those groanings; however, speaking in tongues is ALL ABOUT the “Spirit [giving]…the utterance.” This is further clarified in 1 Corinthians 14:14, “For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.”

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